I was assuming that when the foreclosure was started, the lien would have shown up in the records.  Plus, I am also assuming that the new mortgage would not be granted if a judgment would prime that lien.  Lastly, the forclosing attorney is supposed to inform all lien holders via mennonite notices of any interest they may have in pending forclosure's.  What did I miss?  Were my assumptions wrong on the above items, or was it a trick question where as the question left off important facts and led us to make incorrect assumptions.