I was assuming that when the foreclosure was started, the lien would have shown up in the records. Plus, I am also assuming that the new mortgage would not be granted if a judgment would prime that lien. Lastly, the forclosing attorney is supposed to inform all lien holders via mennonite notices of any interest they may have in pending forclosure's. What did I miss? Were my assumptions wrong on the above items, or was it a trick question where as the question left off important facts and led us to make incorrect assumptions.
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