I have been reading this thread and have an "issue" that I am now curious if it would fall under some sort of "violation" myself...I'm assuming that you all here are WAY more versed than I am (as a lowly abstractor, although I've done this 15+ years I just search and report I don't get involved in the "office aspects")
Lets say that Joe Lawyer works for an underwriter and his sister or some family member is an abstractor, and he states that if his relative gets the search work then the title company gets a "discounted" price, but "discounted" on principle only not on any actual forms...since I am not IN this it seems that it's a situation of you use my relative and then you (title company) gets money back (sounds like a kickback to me personally)...would something like *that* be a violation? Because obviously it makes "capitialism and competition" sorta difficult for the average abstractor.
If anyone has any ideas on this I would love to hear them. Thank you in advance.
-Candi
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