I have to join those that are somewhat confused about this issue.  It has been some time since I did a residential closing, probably more than twenty years.  My recollection, at least here in Ohio, was that as an agent of the title company, I was only notarizing documents.  My only representation was as an agent of the lender, and in a cash deal, of no one. I was always careful to point this out when asked questions.  The onus was on the buyer and seller to have their own legal representation if they so wished (which I always thought they should do).
Does the suit in Connecticut put the attorney closing the transaction in a position where they are in effect representing all the parties to the transaction?  I must be wrong about this, as it makes no sense to me.  Does the court action affect a cash transaction where the parties are in agreement and just need a notary for their deed?