I'll let this drop since you guys are not reading my posts or you are seeing things that aren’t there. I didn't really ask for your opinion, I asked for facts about the title business.  But you guys are having difficulty getting the basic facts of my question straight.

Some examples:

Clanci says "then how is it possible that the title company can step in and accept money from the "they" in the B-C transaction to apply toward A-B and then repay it back to "they" who I assume is part of B-C transaction later. "

But that is not what I said at all.  No one said apply it toward A-B.    The transactions are separate.  The C's lender pays back the B’s lender just like any other transaction.

Then Robert says “If the second transaction is going to be used to fund the first, its a flip I don't want to be involved in.”

Again, not what I said at all.  The second transaction does not fund the first, it repays the lender who funded the first.  Again, like any other transaction.

And then my favorite from Clanci…”It is not fear that prevents us from not doing these transactions, nor is it experience.  It is past experiences and the laws that govern our business that we follow”

It is not experience…it is past experience!  Are you really Glenn Beck in disguise?

Good day.