Yes , but the 1/2 payment is for the only policy that is typically stated under the contract (the Owner's Policy).This rule seems to be more applicable in " a Buyer pays all " area which makes more sense. I just have a hard time believing that Respa would seem to be saying "even though the seller is prohibited to require the buyer to use a particular title company we don't think its a violation of Respa when the reverse is true" ? So when a Buyer is financing he can force a seller to pay for a title policy that does not insure the bank ? However , when it is a cash sale or commercial deal he cannot? Maybe it's just poor wording.

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