I would like to know just why the bank was foreclosing on the mortgage in the first place.

Was this a case where foreclosing would bring in a larger amount of money rather than just continuing to let the homeowner pay down their mortgage?

  Also was the title defective by reason of the divorce?  In Massachusetts, after the decree nisi, husband and wife, automatically become tenants in common.  If Pamela & Jeffrey owned the home jointly (j/t or t/e ??) what was the result after their divorce.  How is that she was able to retain possession, but not ownership, by way of a release deed from Jeffrey? 

I am not an attorney, so I don't know the ramifications of Pamela's continuing to pay the mortgage after Jeffrey's death.  Should she have worked something out with the bank at that time & just who, exactly, was responsible for the mistake on the Note? 

Interesting article though