"Deed of trust and security deeds with power of sale clause can be done non-judicial.", since judicial foreclosure would be more time consuming and costly, thus, I guess lenders would love to insert this clause in event of foreclosure. In reality, it would depend on the market condition (supply and demand: the real estate market, interest rate and available loans), thus, lenders may not always have an upper hand... is such understanding correct?
Many thanks.
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