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Source of Title Blog

Oversight: No Power of Attorney Filed
by Robert Franco | 2010/01/16 |

I was recently given a copy of an affidavit that raised an interesting topic for discussion.  Where a deed is signed by an attorney-in-fact, but no power of attorney was ever recorded, can the matter be cleared up by an affidavit?  This post will focus on Ohio law, but other states most likely have similar laws in this regard.  I'd be interested in hearing thoughts from anyone on what they think and how your state laws may deal with the situation.

Source of Title Blog ::

The affiant states:

  1. I am an attorney licensed to practice law in the State of Ohio.
  2. On May 26, 2004, I prepared a Deed for execution by John Doe and Jane Doe, husband and wife, Grantors to John Doe, Grantee.  John Doe signed said Deed as Attorney-in-Fact for Jane Doe.
  3. That due to an oversight, no Power of Attorney was recorded with the Deed.
  4. That on the 18th day of April, 2005, John Doe executed a Transfer of Death Deed naming his children Able Doe, Betty Doe, and Chad Doe as Transfer on Death Beneficiaries.
  5. That upon John Doe's passing, an Affidavit of Transfer was filed on the 12th day of August, 2009.
  6. Due to the oversight with regard to the filing of a Power of Attorney, the purpose of this Affidavit is to state that Jane Doe's interest in the real estate located at 123 Main Street, Anytown, Ohio would have transferred to John Doe, her husband upon her death.  In addition to the foregoing, upon John Doe's passing, his children, the Transfer on Death beneficiaries were the vested beneficiaries pursuant to his Will, and therefore are the sole heirs of John Doe and Jane Doe.

FURTHER AFFIANT SAITH NAUGHT

Since this is for the sake of mere intellectual debate, we will assume that no probate case was ever opened for either John or Jane Doe.  The question presented is: Does this affidavit clear up the cloud on title created by the failure to record the power of attorney, or should an estate be opened to probate the interest of the Doe's?

Ohio Revised Code § 1337.04 states: "A power of attorney for the conveyance, mortgage, or lease of an interest in real property must be recorded in the office of the county recorder of the county in which such property is situated, previous to the recording of a deed, mortgage, or lease by virtue of such power of attorney."

Clearly, the mandatory language of this statute was not followed - this is the "oversight" mentioned in the affidavit.  But, this is not the only problem.  Ohio case law also establishes that a "power of attorney does not authorize an attorney-in-fact to transfer the principal's property to the attorney-in-fact ..., unless the power of attorney explicitly confers this power."  Because there was never a power of attorney of record, no title examiner could possibly know if this power was "explicitly conferred" on the attorney-in-fact.

In fact, looking at the affidavit, one cannot even be sure that a power of attorney was ever even executed.  Without such knowledge, it cannot not even be ascertained if John Doe actually had any authority to act as Jane Doe's attorney-in-fact.

This would lead to a conclusion that the deed from Jane Doe to John Doe was void and of no effect whatsoever.  Despite this fact, the county entered all of the appropriate conveyances as if they were valid and title is shown in the names of the children of John and Jane Doe.

Paragraph 6 of the affidavit purports to clear this mess up by letting us know what would have happened to Jane Doe's interest in the property, assuming it did not transfer through the deeds that were recorded.  Assuming that the deed from John to Jane was void, Jane retained a half interest in the property.  At some point, Jane passed away.  The affidavit doesn't tell us when this happened, but it does state that her interest would have passed to her husband, John.  It is unclear whether this would have been a result of intestacy or by her will. 

The next question is - did she pass away before or after the Transfer on Death Deed was executed.  If it was after, only John's half interest would have passed to their children as transfer on death beneficiaries.  But, the affidavit further tells us that their children were also the beneficiaries of his will, so we eventually get to the same place anyway.

Seeing as how the children were the only heirs of John and Jane and they are both now deceased, it does appear that the children are the lawful owners.  But don't we still need a probate case to be sure of that?  What about potential creditors of the estates?  What about potential estate tax liabilities?  What about potential Medicare liens?  These are questions that the affidavit does not answer.

[This isn't a file we are working on, so we didn't check to see if there were any estate cases filed.  There may have been, which may answer some of these questions.  But, even if there were estates filed, this property was not conveyed through the probate process. Should any estates be reopened to address this issue?]

There are methods for conveying property outside of the probate estate: transfer on death designations, survivorship, trusts, etc.  When these methods aren't used (or not used properly) probate is necessary, isn't it?

If this affidavit is sufficient to conclusively vest the full interest in the property in the children, one has wonder... why bother with probate at all?  Couldn't we just wait until the owner passes away and file an affidavit in lieu of probate and save the family a lot of time and expense?

Ohio Revised Code § 5301.252 allows for an Affidavit of Facts relating to title which provides that "when... recorded, such affidavit... shall be evidence of the facts stated, insofar as such facts affect title to real estate."  The affidavit may relate to, among other things, heirship.  However, the statute also provides that "every affidavit provided for under this section shall include a description of the land, title to which may be affected by facts stated in such affidavit, and a reference to an instrument of record containing such description, and shall state the name of the person appearing by the record to be the owner of such land at the time of the recording of the affidavit.

This affidavit has no description, only vague references to other instruments which do not include any specific instrument numbers or volumes and pages, and it does not state the record owner of the land, though it may be presumed that the children are shown as the record owners.

It is clear that this conveyance was not handled correctly, thus the need to file the affidavit.  But, it could be argued whether or not the affidavit is effective in correcting the problem.  Is the title to this property marketable?

On one hand, the affidavit does purport to tell us that whether or not the conveyances were effective, we arrive at the same place - title vested in the Doe's children.  But it does this by telling us what would have happened upon the deaths of John and Jane Doe.  The fact remains that it did not happen in the probate court and there is no official record, other than this affidavit, that conveys Jane's half interest.

Let me know what you think... I don't believe that there is a correct answer (or at least, I do not know what it is), only opinions.

Robert A. Franco
SOURCE OF TITLE




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Categories: Title Problems

1779 words | 7964 views | 7 comments | log in or register to post a comment


No Power of Attorney

I don't feel the affidavit takes care of the issue.  However, making a couple of assumptions, it could be cleared up fairly quickly and inexpensively.  Assuming the wife died prior to the execution of the Transfer on Death deed, they could file an application for Certificate of Transfer only in Probate Court along with the form 22 for estate taxes, and the will, if any.  Again, going with the assumption that she died prior to the TOD, enough time has passed to allow the short cut filing.  That puts the entire interest clearly in the surviving spouse and makes the TOD  and affidavit effective for the full interest.

 
by Douglas Gallant | 2010/01/17 | log in or register to post a reply

Colorado case law

There is a very old case in Colorado - Mulford v. Rowland, 45 Colo. 172, 100 P. 603 (1890) - saying that the existence of an unrecorded power of attorney may be established by competent evidence even if the power of attorney itself has been lost or destroyed.  That case was cited with approval in White Cap Mining Co. v. Resurrection Mining Co., 115 Colo. 396, 174 P.2d 727 (1946).  Nevertheless, it does not seem to be the responsibility of a title company to determine what evidence is competent or sufficient to establish whether there was, in fact, an unrecorded power of attorney.  I do not believe that the affidavit, standing alone, would make the title either insurable or marketable.

 
by Louis Weltzer | 2010/01/19 | log in or register to post a reply

No POA

Hmmm, very sticky indeed.  Seems very self serving of Mr to transfer to himself and no one demanded to see the POA?!?!  That is just odd in itself, I have never not seen the POA much less not recorded it.   I am almost stunned, the affidavit was written by the Attorney.  It is so vague as to the true facts - when did Mrs die, does the POA even survive death, could she have revoked it at some point and taken away the power, with out seeing the POA how do we know it was even executed by Mrs and at this point was is executed properly, since everything else seems to be wrong.  And the list of questions goes on and on.  The attorney invovled should be ashamed to have done such poor work for the client. 

I can't believe I would accept this as a fix all affidavit.  As mentioned before it leaves out many critical facts.  As I am not an attorney I can't really say but I think I would be hard pressed to find one that would accept it.  As a Paralegal I would say the whole thing stinks and even as a Escrow Processor/Closer I would have taken the entire thing to my attorney for review.

As for fixing it now, good luck, probate seems to be the only way at this point.  Since Mr and Mrs are both deceased it seems logical to review the dates in the timeline and work from there.  As Doug said depending on the living status of Mrs and the time of TOD deed, it may have all washed out in the end to come to the current conclusion - the children own it now.

Unitl all the questions can be answered there is not any good answer nor is there a very good "fix all" to the mess. 

As a Title Agent, I would not want to insure it as it stands above.  Maybe with the proper research and answers to clarify the situation but in the end I think the best course would be to go to probate. At the very least to insure a public record is created and kept for future sales.

 
by Clanci Nelson | 2010/01/19 | log in or register to post a reply

What do you think about an expired POA being used?
I was just checking up on a recent sale, and discovered that the legal description was incorrect- had added info that did not apply- but had been there for at least 4 sales ! Then I noticed that the current sale had used a POA(military) that expired on Aug 10, but not used until Aug 28- I called and left a message to the POA person- no reply- I wrote to the prior owners ( I knew the couple) No reply. I talked to the current owners and explained the problem- she said would talk to the title company- nothing yet, that was over two years ago!! No one seems to care now- but wait until she wants to sell-then they will wish they had taken care of it, the title company was an in house IndyMAc company. It is the little things that can cause BIG problems- we have to be careful to "see" all of these problems- something the experience has an advantage in. 
by STEVE MEINECKE | 2010/01/20 | log in or register to post a reply

Proper Procedures

For estate purposes, title to real and personal property vests in the beneficiaries or heirs at the time of death of the decedent. The purpose of probate is to make a formal determination of beneficiaries/heirs and to provide notice to potential creditors, claimants and known and unknown heirs in order to bar future claims to the probated assets. As Mr. Weltzer correctly stated, the question isn't  whether the property has vested, but rather whether the title is marketable and insurable. The fact that we have to make assumptions about when people died and whether poas existed and whether this attorney had sufficient knowledge of the facts illuminates the point that the fundamental purpose of an abstract for title insurance is to eliminate known risks of claims against the title. An underwriter may be willing to insure through this, but only because the industry is moving toward assumption of risk (casualty) rather than elimination of risk. At this point, there are a variety of potential claimants who could assert an interest because the proper procedures were not followed. The only ways to effectively eliminate these potential claimants would be via a quiet title action or an estate.

 

 
by J. H. | 2010/01/22 | log in or register to post a reply

Expired

Wow, I can't believe no one caught that the POA was expired. Since the official capacity of the POA had expired then there is no longer any power to sign as POA - right??  That seems logical to me.  Not sure why a Military POA would have such a thing in it. 

No one is even going to look into it unless you brow beat them.  If there is no forclosure, bankruptcty or claim being made then they have no reason to look at it nor fix it in their minds.  Everyone will pass the blame and ultimately, it is the Title Agents fault for using it. 

When she goes to sell it will be a fubar mess - tell her to make sure to keep her Own. Policy!!!  She may need it later!!!  Worse case I can think of would be for the Military person to come home to a spouse that left em high and dry and sold the house.  Scary thought but it happens more than we know.

And, wait for it....I HATE ABA'S for this reason.  Pressured to use it I am sure by the lender.

 

 
by Clanci Nelson | 2010/01/25 | log in or register to post a reply

Reply to "expired"
Clanci: I agree with you on this whole case- I wrote to the prior owners( They were neighbors across the street- nice people- Marine that served in Iraq, too) They were transfered to Ca for a few years and then moved back to the next county - I wrote to them at their new address- No reply- the POA was to the wife's father, so it was not a spouse issue of selling without the husband's knowledge- The odd thing was the current owner that worked for the bank did not seem to be too concerned about the fact that her deed was "defective" and that the title company was an inside company(maybe an ABA-not sure)did not do anything ti fix the problem- and they all were made aware of their blunder. We will just have to wait until she sells or what ever way to transfer the property.Thanks for the comment, too. Steve Meinecke 
by STEVE MEINECKE | 2010/01/26 | log in or register to post a reply
Source of Title Blog

Robert A. FrancoThe focus of this blog will be on sharing my thoughts and concerns related to the small title agents and abstractors. The industry has changed dramatically over the past ten years and I believe that we are just seeing the beginning. As the evolution continues, what will become of the many small independent title professionals who have long been the cornerstone of the industry?

Robert A. Franco
SOURCE OF TITLE

 

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